What’s wrong with this statement: “People won’t buy cars from an automaker in bankruptcy”

I’ve heard this refrain at least a dozen times on CNBC today.  It’s been repeated so many times that it’s starting to take on the aura of fact.

Let’s dig a little deeper.  Pundits are saying “people who are surveyed say they won’t buy a car from a bankrupt automaker”.

Well, guess what.  The Detroit 3 (or at least GM and Chrysler are bankrupt!

The “fine hair” of difference is whether they go through a “bankruptcy proceeding” that potentially restructures them (and their burdensome union contracts) into a healthier condition.

I’m sure the survey question is — at least implicitly — “would you be more likely to buy a car from a financially healthy automaker or one that is bankrupt?”  Obvious answer, right?

The question should be “would you be more likely to buy a car from an automaker in bankruptcy proceedings, or one that is hanging by its financial finger nails and likely to go into formal bankruptcy in a couple of monthes?”  Rational answer: “none of the above”

What am I missing?

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